How to prove that at least two vertices have the same degree in any graph?












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I want to prove that at least two vertices have the same degree in any graph (with 2 or more vertices). I do have a few graphs in mind that prove this statement correct, but how would I go about proving it (or disproving it) for ALL graphs?










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  • 1




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    Please try to make the titles of your questions more informative. For example, Why does $a<b$ imply $a+c<b+c$? is much more useful for other users than A question about inequality. From How can I ask a good question?: Make your title as descriptive as possible. In many cases one can actually phrase the title as the question, at least in such a way so as to be comprehensible to an expert reader. You can find more tips for choosing a good title here.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    9 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Symmetric, simple graphs?
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    9 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of "In a party people shake hands with one another"
    $endgroup$
    – JMoravitz
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of If n is a natural number ≥2 how do I prove that any graph with n vertices has at least two vertices of the same degree?
    $endgroup$
    – Acccumulation
    4 hours ago


















6












$begingroup$


I want to prove that at least two vertices have the same degree in any graph (with 2 or more vertices). I do have a few graphs in mind that prove this statement correct, but how would I go about proving it (or disproving it) for ALL graphs?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Please try to make the titles of your questions more informative. For example, Why does $a<b$ imply $a+c<b+c$? is much more useful for other users than A question about inequality. From How can I ask a good question?: Make your title as descriptive as possible. In many cases one can actually phrase the title as the question, at least in such a way so as to be comprehensible to an expert reader. You can find more tips for choosing a good title here.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    9 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Symmetric, simple graphs?
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    9 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of "In a party people shake hands with one another"
    $endgroup$
    – JMoravitz
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of If n is a natural number ≥2 how do I prove that any graph with n vertices has at least two vertices of the same degree?
    $endgroup$
    – Acccumulation
    4 hours ago
















6












6








6


1



$begingroup$


I want to prove that at least two vertices have the same degree in any graph (with 2 or more vertices). I do have a few graphs in mind that prove this statement correct, but how would I go about proving it (or disproving it) for ALL graphs?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I want to prove that at least two vertices have the same degree in any graph (with 2 or more vertices). I do have a few graphs in mind that prove this statement correct, but how would I go about proving it (or disproving it) for ALL graphs?







combinatorics discrete-mathematics graph-theory






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edited 3 hours ago









James Rettie

31




31










asked 9 hours ago









desiignerdesiigner

625




625








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Please try to make the titles of your questions more informative. For example, Why does $a<b$ imply $a+c<b+c$? is much more useful for other users than A question about inequality. From How can I ask a good question?: Make your title as descriptive as possible. In many cases one can actually phrase the title as the question, at least in such a way so as to be comprehensible to an expert reader. You can find more tips for choosing a good title here.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    9 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Symmetric, simple graphs?
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    9 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of "In a party people shake hands with one another"
    $endgroup$
    – JMoravitz
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of If n is a natural number ≥2 how do I prove that any graph with n vertices has at least two vertices of the same degree?
    $endgroup$
    – Acccumulation
    4 hours ago
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Please try to make the titles of your questions more informative. For example, Why does $a<b$ imply $a+c<b+c$? is much more useful for other users than A question about inequality. From How can I ask a good question?: Make your title as descriptive as possible. In many cases one can actually phrase the title as the question, at least in such a way so as to be comprehensible to an expert reader. You can find more tips for choosing a good title here.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    9 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Symmetric, simple graphs?
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    9 hours ago






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of "In a party people shake hands with one another"
    $endgroup$
    – JMoravitz
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of If n is a natural number ≥2 how do I prove that any graph with n vertices has at least two vertices of the same degree?
    $endgroup$
    – Acccumulation
    4 hours ago










1




1




$begingroup$
Please try to make the titles of your questions more informative. For example, Why does $a<b$ imply $a+c<b+c$? is much more useful for other users than A question about inequality. From How can I ask a good question?: Make your title as descriptive as possible. In many cases one can actually phrase the title as the question, at least in such a way so as to be comprehensible to an expert reader. You can find more tips for choosing a good title here.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
9 hours ago




$begingroup$
Please try to make the titles of your questions more informative. For example, Why does $a<b$ imply $a+c<b+c$? is much more useful for other users than A question about inequality. From How can I ask a good question?: Make your title as descriptive as possible. In many cases one can actually phrase the title as the question, at least in such a way so as to be comprehensible to an expert reader. You can find more tips for choosing a good title here.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
9 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
Symmetric, simple graphs?
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
9 hours ago




$begingroup$
Symmetric, simple graphs?
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
9 hours ago




2




2




$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of "In a party people shake hands with one another"
$endgroup$
– JMoravitz
9 hours ago




$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of "In a party people shake hands with one another"
$endgroup$
– JMoravitz
9 hours ago












$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of If n is a natural number ≥2 how do I prove that any graph with n vertices has at least two vertices of the same degree?
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago






$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of If n is a natural number ≥2 how do I prove that any graph with n vertices has at least two vertices of the same degree?
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago












3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















10












$begingroup$

I assume we're talking about finite graphs. I'm pretty sure your statement is false for infinite graphs.



Assume that a finite graph $G$ has $n$ vertices. Then each vertex has a degree between $n-1$ and $0$. But if any vertex has degree $0$, then no vertex can have degree $n-1$, so it's not possible for the degrees of the graph's vertices to include both $0$ and $n-1$. Thus, the $n$ vertices of the graph can only have $n-1$ different degrees, so by the pigeonhole principle at least two vertices must have the same degree.






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New contributor




Robert Shore is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • $begingroup$
    You are assuming the graph is simple?
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    5 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes. That is assumed in the definition of graph that I learned. I learned to call a graph with loops or multiple edges between vertices a "multigraph."
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Shore
    4 hours ago



















10












$begingroup$

Say graph is simple with no loops and that all vertices have different degree $d_1,d_2,...d_n$, then $${d_1,d_2,...d_n} = {0,1,2...,n-1}$$



So there is a vertex with degree $n-1$ and a vertex with degree $0$. A contradiction.






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$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Perhaps it would be better to include that the graph is simple?
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Is it necessary to specify "no loops"?
    $endgroup$
    – Shufflepants
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Of course. Take a graph with two vertices and one connected to it self. @Shufflepants
    $endgroup$
    – greedoid
    4 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @greedoid Then by "no loops" did you mean "no self connection"? Otherwise I'd interpret "simple with no loops" as being equivalent to a tree. But in any case, the OP didn't specify "simple" or "no loops". So, it would seem the answer to the question is: it's not provable because it's not true.
    $endgroup$
    – Shufflepants
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Because I didn't see it at first: This follows because in a simple graph the degree of any vertex must be less than the number of vertices. Thus if the vertex degrees are all different and less than $n$ they must be ${0, 1, 2..., n-1}$.
    $endgroup$
    – immibis
    3 hours ago





















0












$begingroup$

Here is a counterexample.



Let $G$ be a graph on the positive integers where there is an edge from $x$ to $y$ if $x < y le 2x$. Note that we will ignore the direction of the edges. So $2$, for example, is neighbored by $1$, $3$, and $4$.



Let $j$ and $k$ be distinct positive integers. Without loss of generality assume that $j < k$. Note that $deg(j) = j + lfloor j/2 rfloor$ and $deg(k) = k + lfloor k/2 rfloor$. We have that



$$j < k$$
$$lfloor j/2 rfloor le lfloor k/2 rfloor$$
$$j + lfloor j/2 rfloor < k + lfloor k/2 rfloor$$
$$deg(j) < deg(k)$$
$$deg(j) neq deg(k)$$



Therefore, no two different vertices will have the same degree. $square$






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  • $begingroup$
    As noted at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Graph_theory#Definitions, "V and E are usually taken to be finite, and many of the well-known results are not true (or are rather different) for infinite graphs because many of the arguments fail in the infinite case."
    $endgroup$
    – ruakh
    3 mins ago











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3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes








3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









10












$begingroup$

I assume we're talking about finite graphs. I'm pretty sure your statement is false for infinite graphs.



Assume that a finite graph $G$ has $n$ vertices. Then each vertex has a degree between $n-1$ and $0$. But if any vertex has degree $0$, then no vertex can have degree $n-1$, so it's not possible for the degrees of the graph's vertices to include both $0$ and $n-1$. Thus, the $n$ vertices of the graph can only have $n-1$ different degrees, so by the pigeonhole principle at least two vertices must have the same degree.






share|cite|improve this answer








New contributor




Robert Shore is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    You are assuming the graph is simple?
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    5 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes. That is assumed in the definition of graph that I learned. I learned to call a graph with loops or multiple edges between vertices a "multigraph."
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Shore
    4 hours ago
















10












$begingroup$

I assume we're talking about finite graphs. I'm pretty sure your statement is false for infinite graphs.



Assume that a finite graph $G$ has $n$ vertices. Then each vertex has a degree between $n-1$ and $0$. But if any vertex has degree $0$, then no vertex can have degree $n-1$, so it's not possible for the degrees of the graph's vertices to include both $0$ and $n-1$. Thus, the $n$ vertices of the graph can only have $n-1$ different degrees, so by the pigeonhole principle at least two vertices must have the same degree.






share|cite|improve this answer








New contributor




Robert Shore is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    You are assuming the graph is simple?
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    5 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes. That is assumed in the definition of graph that I learned. I learned to call a graph with loops or multiple edges between vertices a "multigraph."
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Shore
    4 hours ago














10












10








10





$begingroup$

I assume we're talking about finite graphs. I'm pretty sure your statement is false for infinite graphs.



Assume that a finite graph $G$ has $n$ vertices. Then each vertex has a degree between $n-1$ and $0$. But if any vertex has degree $0$, then no vertex can have degree $n-1$, so it's not possible for the degrees of the graph's vertices to include both $0$ and $n-1$. Thus, the $n$ vertices of the graph can only have $n-1$ different degrees, so by the pigeonhole principle at least two vertices must have the same degree.






share|cite|improve this answer








New contributor




Robert Shore is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$



I assume we're talking about finite graphs. I'm pretty sure your statement is false for infinite graphs.



Assume that a finite graph $G$ has $n$ vertices. Then each vertex has a degree between $n-1$ and $0$. But if any vertex has degree $0$, then no vertex can have degree $n-1$, so it's not possible for the degrees of the graph's vertices to include both $0$ and $n-1$. Thus, the $n$ vertices of the graph can only have $n-1$ different degrees, so by the pigeonhole principle at least two vertices must have the same degree.







share|cite|improve this answer








New contributor




Robert Shore is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer






New contributor




Robert Shore is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









answered 9 hours ago









Robert ShoreRobert Shore

3116




3116




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Robert Shore is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • $begingroup$
    You are assuming the graph is simple?
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    5 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes. That is assumed in the definition of graph that I learned. I learned to call a graph with loops or multiple edges between vertices a "multigraph."
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Shore
    4 hours ago


















  • $begingroup$
    You are assuming the graph is simple?
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    5 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes. That is assumed in the definition of graph that I learned. I learned to call a graph with loops or multiple edges between vertices a "multigraph."
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Shore
    4 hours ago
















$begingroup$
You are assuming the graph is simple?
$endgroup$
– Servaes
5 hours ago




$begingroup$
You are assuming the graph is simple?
$endgroup$
– Servaes
5 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
Yes. That is assumed in the definition of graph that I learned. I learned to call a graph with loops or multiple edges between vertices a "multigraph."
$endgroup$
– Robert Shore
4 hours ago




$begingroup$
Yes. That is assumed in the definition of graph that I learned. I learned to call a graph with loops or multiple edges between vertices a "multigraph."
$endgroup$
– Robert Shore
4 hours ago











10












$begingroup$

Say graph is simple with no loops and that all vertices have different degree $d_1,d_2,...d_n$, then $${d_1,d_2,...d_n} = {0,1,2...,n-1}$$



So there is a vertex with degree $n-1$ and a vertex with degree $0$. A contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Perhaps it would be better to include that the graph is simple?
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Is it necessary to specify "no loops"?
    $endgroup$
    – Shufflepants
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Of course. Take a graph with two vertices and one connected to it self. @Shufflepants
    $endgroup$
    – greedoid
    4 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @greedoid Then by "no loops" did you mean "no self connection"? Otherwise I'd interpret "simple with no loops" as being equivalent to a tree. But in any case, the OP didn't specify "simple" or "no loops". So, it would seem the answer to the question is: it's not provable because it's not true.
    $endgroup$
    – Shufflepants
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Because I didn't see it at first: This follows because in a simple graph the degree of any vertex must be less than the number of vertices. Thus if the vertex degrees are all different and less than $n$ they must be ${0, 1, 2..., n-1}$.
    $endgroup$
    – immibis
    3 hours ago


















10












$begingroup$

Say graph is simple with no loops and that all vertices have different degree $d_1,d_2,...d_n$, then $${d_1,d_2,...d_n} = {0,1,2...,n-1}$$



So there is a vertex with degree $n-1$ and a vertex with degree $0$. A contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Perhaps it would be better to include that the graph is simple?
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Is it necessary to specify "no loops"?
    $endgroup$
    – Shufflepants
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Of course. Take a graph with two vertices and one connected to it self. @Shufflepants
    $endgroup$
    – greedoid
    4 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @greedoid Then by "no loops" did you mean "no self connection"? Otherwise I'd interpret "simple with no loops" as being equivalent to a tree. But in any case, the OP didn't specify "simple" or "no loops". So, it would seem the answer to the question is: it's not provable because it's not true.
    $endgroup$
    – Shufflepants
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Because I didn't see it at first: This follows because in a simple graph the degree of any vertex must be less than the number of vertices. Thus if the vertex degrees are all different and less than $n$ they must be ${0, 1, 2..., n-1}$.
    $endgroup$
    – immibis
    3 hours ago
















10












10








10





$begingroup$

Say graph is simple with no loops and that all vertices have different degree $d_1,d_2,...d_n$, then $${d_1,d_2,...d_n} = {0,1,2...,n-1}$$



So there is a vertex with degree $n-1$ and a vertex with degree $0$. A contradiction.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Say graph is simple with no loops and that all vertices have different degree $d_1,d_2,...d_n$, then $${d_1,d_2,...d_n} = {0,1,2...,n-1}$$



So there is a vertex with degree $n-1$ and a vertex with degree $0$. A contradiction.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 9 hours ago

























answered 9 hours ago









greedoidgreedoid

41k1149101




41k1149101












  • $begingroup$
    Perhaps it would be better to include that the graph is simple?
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Is it necessary to specify "no loops"?
    $endgroup$
    – Shufflepants
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Of course. Take a graph with two vertices and one connected to it self. @Shufflepants
    $endgroup$
    – greedoid
    4 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @greedoid Then by "no loops" did you mean "no self connection"? Otherwise I'd interpret "simple with no loops" as being equivalent to a tree. But in any case, the OP didn't specify "simple" or "no loops". So, it would seem the answer to the question is: it's not provable because it's not true.
    $endgroup$
    – Shufflepants
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Because I didn't see it at first: This follows because in a simple graph the degree of any vertex must be less than the number of vertices. Thus if the vertex degrees are all different and less than $n$ they must be ${0, 1, 2..., n-1}$.
    $endgroup$
    – immibis
    3 hours ago




















  • $begingroup$
    Perhaps it would be better to include that the graph is simple?
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    9 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Is it necessary to specify "no loops"?
    $endgroup$
    – Shufflepants
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Of course. Take a graph with two vertices and one connected to it self. @Shufflepants
    $endgroup$
    – greedoid
    4 hours ago








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @greedoid Then by "no loops" did you mean "no self connection"? Otherwise I'd interpret "simple with no loops" as being equivalent to a tree. But in any case, the OP didn't specify "simple" or "no loops". So, it would seem the answer to the question is: it's not provable because it's not true.
    $endgroup$
    – Shufflepants
    4 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Because I didn't see it at first: This follows because in a simple graph the degree of any vertex must be less than the number of vertices. Thus if the vertex degrees are all different and less than $n$ they must be ${0, 1, 2..., n-1}$.
    $endgroup$
    – immibis
    3 hours ago


















$begingroup$
Perhaps it would be better to include that the graph is simple?
$endgroup$
– Shubham Johri
9 hours ago




$begingroup$
Perhaps it would be better to include that the graph is simple?
$endgroup$
– Shubham Johri
9 hours ago












$begingroup$
Is it necessary to specify "no loops"?
$endgroup$
– Shufflepants
4 hours ago




$begingroup$
Is it necessary to specify "no loops"?
$endgroup$
– Shufflepants
4 hours ago












$begingroup$
Of course. Take a graph with two vertices and one connected to it self. @Shufflepants
$endgroup$
– greedoid
4 hours ago






$begingroup$
Of course. Take a graph with two vertices and one connected to it self. @Shufflepants
$endgroup$
– greedoid
4 hours ago






1




1




$begingroup$
@greedoid Then by "no loops" did you mean "no self connection"? Otherwise I'd interpret "simple with no loops" as being equivalent to a tree. But in any case, the OP didn't specify "simple" or "no loops". So, it would seem the answer to the question is: it's not provable because it's not true.
$endgroup$
– Shufflepants
4 hours ago




$begingroup$
@greedoid Then by "no loops" did you mean "no self connection"? Otherwise I'd interpret "simple with no loops" as being equivalent to a tree. But in any case, the OP didn't specify "simple" or "no loops". So, it would seem the answer to the question is: it's not provable because it's not true.
$endgroup$
– Shufflepants
4 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
Because I didn't see it at first: This follows because in a simple graph the degree of any vertex must be less than the number of vertices. Thus if the vertex degrees are all different and less than $n$ they must be ${0, 1, 2..., n-1}$.
$endgroup$
– immibis
3 hours ago






$begingroup$
Because I didn't see it at first: This follows because in a simple graph the degree of any vertex must be less than the number of vertices. Thus if the vertex degrees are all different and less than $n$ they must be ${0, 1, 2..., n-1}$.
$endgroup$
– immibis
3 hours ago













0












$begingroup$

Here is a counterexample.



Let $G$ be a graph on the positive integers where there is an edge from $x$ to $y$ if $x < y le 2x$. Note that we will ignore the direction of the edges. So $2$, for example, is neighbored by $1$, $3$, and $4$.



Let $j$ and $k$ be distinct positive integers. Without loss of generality assume that $j < k$. Note that $deg(j) = j + lfloor j/2 rfloor$ and $deg(k) = k + lfloor k/2 rfloor$. We have that



$$j < k$$
$$lfloor j/2 rfloor le lfloor k/2 rfloor$$
$$j + lfloor j/2 rfloor < k + lfloor k/2 rfloor$$
$$deg(j) < deg(k)$$
$$deg(j) neq deg(k)$$



Therefore, no two different vertices will have the same degree. $square$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    As noted at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Graph_theory#Definitions, "V and E are usually taken to be finite, and many of the well-known results are not true (or are rather different) for infinite graphs because many of the arguments fail in the infinite case."
    $endgroup$
    – ruakh
    3 mins ago
















0












$begingroup$

Here is a counterexample.



Let $G$ be a graph on the positive integers where there is an edge from $x$ to $y$ if $x < y le 2x$. Note that we will ignore the direction of the edges. So $2$, for example, is neighbored by $1$, $3$, and $4$.



Let $j$ and $k$ be distinct positive integers. Without loss of generality assume that $j < k$. Note that $deg(j) = j + lfloor j/2 rfloor$ and $deg(k) = k + lfloor k/2 rfloor$. We have that



$$j < k$$
$$lfloor j/2 rfloor le lfloor k/2 rfloor$$
$$j + lfloor j/2 rfloor < k + lfloor k/2 rfloor$$
$$deg(j) < deg(k)$$
$$deg(j) neq deg(k)$$



Therefore, no two different vertices will have the same degree. $square$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    As noted at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Graph_theory#Definitions, "V and E are usually taken to be finite, and many of the well-known results are not true (or are rather different) for infinite graphs because many of the arguments fail in the infinite case."
    $endgroup$
    – ruakh
    3 mins ago














0












0








0





$begingroup$

Here is a counterexample.



Let $G$ be a graph on the positive integers where there is an edge from $x$ to $y$ if $x < y le 2x$. Note that we will ignore the direction of the edges. So $2$, for example, is neighbored by $1$, $3$, and $4$.



Let $j$ and $k$ be distinct positive integers. Without loss of generality assume that $j < k$. Note that $deg(j) = j + lfloor j/2 rfloor$ and $deg(k) = k + lfloor k/2 rfloor$. We have that



$$j < k$$
$$lfloor j/2 rfloor le lfloor k/2 rfloor$$
$$j + lfloor j/2 rfloor < k + lfloor k/2 rfloor$$
$$deg(j) < deg(k)$$
$$deg(j) neq deg(k)$$



Therefore, no two different vertices will have the same degree. $square$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Here is a counterexample.



Let $G$ be a graph on the positive integers where there is an edge from $x$ to $y$ if $x < y le 2x$. Note that we will ignore the direction of the edges. So $2$, for example, is neighbored by $1$, $3$, and $4$.



Let $j$ and $k$ be distinct positive integers. Without loss of generality assume that $j < k$. Note that $deg(j) = j + lfloor j/2 rfloor$ and $deg(k) = k + lfloor k/2 rfloor$. We have that



$$j < k$$
$$lfloor j/2 rfloor le lfloor k/2 rfloor$$
$$j + lfloor j/2 rfloor < k + lfloor k/2 rfloor$$
$$deg(j) < deg(k)$$
$$deg(j) neq deg(k)$$



Therefore, no two different vertices will have the same degree. $square$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered 4 hours ago









PyRulezPyRulez

4,68622469




4,68622469












  • $begingroup$
    As noted at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Graph_theory#Definitions, "V and E are usually taken to be finite, and many of the well-known results are not true (or are rather different) for infinite graphs because many of the arguments fail in the infinite case."
    $endgroup$
    – ruakh
    3 mins ago


















  • $begingroup$
    As noted at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Graph_theory#Definitions, "V and E are usually taken to be finite, and many of the well-known results are not true (or are rather different) for infinite graphs because many of the arguments fail in the infinite case."
    $endgroup$
    – ruakh
    3 mins ago
















$begingroup$
As noted at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Graph_theory#Definitions, "V and E are usually taken to be finite, and many of the well-known results are not true (or are rather different) for infinite graphs because many of the arguments fail in the infinite case."
$endgroup$
– ruakh
3 mins ago




$begingroup$
As noted at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Graph_theory#Definitions, "V and E are usually taken to be finite, and many of the well-known results are not true (or are rather different) for infinite graphs because many of the arguments fail in the infinite case."
$endgroup$
– ruakh
3 mins ago


















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