Sequence of Tenses: Translating the subjunctive
This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
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This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
New contributor
add a comment |
This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
New contributor
This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
coniunctivus purpose-clause
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asked 10 hours ago
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
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You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
9 hours ago
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
9 hours ago
add a comment |
You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
9 hours ago
add a comment |
You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
edited 10 hours ago
answered 10 hours ago
cnreadcnread
8,91711124
8,91711124
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
9 hours ago
add a comment |
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
9 hours ago
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
9 hours ago
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
9 hours ago
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
answered 10 hours ago
tonytony
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Kevin Miller is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Kevin Miller is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Kevin Miller is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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